Toymods Car Club Inc: Tech & Conversions => Car Audio Question...

Toymods Car Club
www.toymods.org.au

F.A.Q.

Home

Members

Toymods » Tech & Conversions » Car Audio Question... Show: Today's Posts :: Show Polls Email to friend

Author

Topic

mic*
Regular

Location:
Brisbane
Registered:
July 2005

Re: Car Audio Question...

Fri, 04 November 2005 07:03

Quote:

(by: Chris Davey)
dual 2 ohm sub in series for a 4 ohm load which when bridged brings it back to 2 ohm anyway.

This what i thought. With any car audio amp channel a 4 ohm load = a 4 ohm circuit. Bridge two channels and a 4 ohm load will = a 2 ohm circuit. With the same bridged channels a 2 ohm load will = a 1 ohm circuit, and most amps go boom.

Quote:

(by: Sigmeister)
However when you bridge the channels, you can only run at 4 Ohms (well with cheaper amps anyway) so impedence goes up (from 2-4)

I am a bit confused. I think you are saying the minimum impedence of you driver or speaker goes up from 2-4, but the impedence of the circuit when bridging channels goes DOWN for a fixed load.

There are some amps around which are 1 ohm stable. You bridge 4 channels into 1 and drive a 2ohm sub with dual voice coils wired in series. The load equals 4ohms, but because you have bridged four into one, the circuit runs at 1 ohm. Incredible power. You could just use a single coil 4 ohm sub but i think they dont handle that low an impedence. ???

I have not played with anything at 1 ohm. Anyone who has that cares to share??? I know it used to be more commonplace to see 1 ohm setups in compettition but it went out of style, i think coz it is less efficient/power hungry...

[Report message to a moderator]

[Message index]

-=] Back to Top [=-

Current Time: Wed Jul 30 17:35:33 UTC 2025

Total time taken to generate the page: 0.0048830509185791 seconds

.:: Contact :: Home ::.